Skip to main content

How do you calculate the delay time to match the tempo o

Submitted by anonymous on Tue, 09/02/2003 - 20:05

Help please?

Comments

Alecio,

Thanks so much for taking the trouble to answer the question. Could you please write it in normal English(sorry never went to Princeton)? I am abit confused.

What is TD? Is it Delay Time? Also what is 60E3 and how do you get 500 milliseconds by dividing it by 120 beat per minute?

Also the bit about shorter delays is a bit over my head. More detailed help will be appreciated.

Thanks :roll:

Attached files Image removed.

Tue, 09/02/2003 - 20:33 Permalink

you´re wellcomed guys!
Just to remember. with some electronic calculators, ya shall see the E3, so as to save some zeroes in the read out. Why type 100,000 if you can type 100E3?

for example, 100kHz = 100,000 Hz = 100,000cycles/second
2K2 = 2,200Hz = 2,200 cycles/second ok?

Just to help our young brother:

Also useful:
n = nano, means E-9
p = pico, means E-12
u = micro, means E-6
m = mili, means E-3
k =kilo, means E+3
M=mega, means E+6
T=Tera, means E+9

:)

Fri, 09/05/2003 - 13:33 Permalink

Hi Guys,
New here and just thought I would lend an old trick to this thread.
What ever happened to "Listening" and "beat matching"??
You don't need to be a math expert to use your ears, it's a very easy thing to do.
Just play with the delay times until it locks-in, you will instantly recognize it!

Hope this helps,
Mike

BTW: This looks like a Great forum and I'm looking forward to sharing some info with everyone.

Sat, 09/06/2003 - 03:04 Permalink

Originally posted by Alécio Costa - Brazil:
hahahahaa
VL = L. di/dt
IL = 1/L Integer VL.dt
Ic = C. dq/dt
Z = R +-jx
x = Xl=-Xc
H(s) = 1/ 1+sRC

wow, lots of math msturbation
:)

1.) Instantaneous voltage acros an inductor
2.) Instantaneous current through an inductor
3.) Complex impedance in rectangular coordinates
4.) What's this supposed to be,a point of resonace where inductive reactance equals capacitive reactance?
5.) Laplace Transform,or S domain,representaion of a first order transfer function.

Cool stuff!

Sat, 09/06/2003 - 06:52 Permalink

Originally posted by falkon2:
Well, tempo = beats per minute. There are 60,000 miliseconds in a minute.

To find the delay you want, you take the inverse of tempo. That would be 1/tempo (in minutes). And there are 60,000 miliseconds in a minute, so you get 60,000/tempo (in miliseconds).

Got it.

Thanks guys,this is an awesome forum.

Johnny

Wed, 09/10/2003 - 17:53 Permalink